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belief that primitive man was conscious of modulation & harmony than I maintain the wholly untenable position that they are the arbitrary products of the schools. What I understand his paper to assert, & what I am venturing the deny, is the general proposition that primitive folk-music is based on a 'natural perception of harmonic relations.' And I would [[say?]] that in face of the evidence this general proposition can no longer be maintained.

Transcription Notes:
The topic is John Comfort Fillmore's paper 'The Harmonic Structure of Indian Music.'